Translation of Scripture Debate - Windsor v. Hofstetter

Round 3a

Cross Examination Round

Questions from Barry Hofstetter

1.      In Round 1 of your opening remarks, you argue that because the word for “heel” is feminine, it is therefore must refer to the woman.  In your counter response to my rebuttal of this, you don’t address my response at all (except to acknowledge it), but instead assert that I am ignoring the subject of the passage.  Do you therefore accede that your argument concerning the gender of “heel” was fallacious?

2.      In your counter response, you claim  “Note secondly, that the definition of ‘heel’ includes ‘lier [sic] in wait,’ thus the DRB translation of the serpent lying in wait of her heel represents a viable interpretation and it becomes difficult to see where, as the ESV translates that as "you (the serpent) shall bruise His (Jesus') heel." This makes no sense to me.  How does the word “heel” contain the definition of “lie in wait?”  The noun and verb are completely separate.  Would you please clarify what you are trying to say here?

3.      Also in your counter response, you fail to respond to the actual grammatical argument that I make with regard to Luke 1:28, and instead accuse me of dealing with only part of the word.  Would you please take some time to demonstrate how I have done this, and also take the opportunity to respond to the actual argument that I make?

4.      In your comments so far, and particularly your rebuttal for round two, you seem to be making the claim that Jerome actually used a different Hebrew text than what we currently possess.  I would like you to discuss this in more detail, and provide any evidence that you have in addition to the rather thin support you have already provided. To clarify specifically, you and Dr. Marshall provide very tenuous support for the assertion that “There is good reason to doubt the majority Hebrew reading...”  Can you or your source provide any other arguments in support of this assertion?

5.      You asserted in your recent round two rebuttal that the NAB and the NJB altered the translations of Gen 3:15 and Luke 1:28 as part of a Protestant appeasement program.  Other than the fact that such activity seemed to be taking placed in your church generally, do you have any actual documentary or other hard evidence to support this claim?

6.      Dr. Marshall claims that there are two Hebrew manuscripts (out of literally hundreds), which have the feminine “she” instead of “he” for Genesis 3:15.  Would you please provide the names, dates and provenance of those two manuscripts?

7.      With regard to Luke 1:28, do you understand the difference between semantics and syntax (if so, please briefly explain), and can your provide any additional lexical support for your claims?

8.      ” Mr. Hofstetter begins by disputing whose “heel” does the “crushing” and explains that the feminine gender of the word ‘heel’ is the ‘normal gender for the word.’”  Can you show me where I ever said anything about the heel doing the crushing?

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