Free Will Debate
****I quoted verses in John re: the "MANY" that would be given to Jesus. You replied: there is no "MANY" in any of these verses.
However, since we both agree not ALL men come to Christ, it logically
follows that only "MANY" will. Where we differ is that you think all
men are drawn--- but many just refuse. I say those whom God chooses
to draw will not fail to come to Christ because of His discriminating "WISHES" in eternity past (2 Tim 1:9). "No one knows the Father except the Son, and anyone to whom the Son WISHES TO REVEAL HIM" (Matt
11:27, NAB, Catholic edition). Your rubric is that the plan of
salvation goes out without any intention to save anyone in particular. How do you reconcile that with His WISH to, "call [on] purpose" (Rms 8:28) and "set aside" both Isaiah and Paul from their mother's womb? (Isa 49:1, Gal 1:15).
insist that Jn 12:32 means Jesus will draw every man on earth to
Himself. But why would God bother drawing "ALL" men to Christ if he
has, "made the wicked for the day of evil" (Prov 16:4), "hated them before they were born" (Rms 9:11-13), "before of old ordained them to condemnation" (Jude 4), "fitted them for destruction" (Rms 9:22, 2 Pet 2:12)?
****You say those who are "foreknown", are those whom God foresees making the right decision on their own to choose Christ. Doesn't this contradict Philippians 2:13?
"For it is God which worketh in you, to will and to do of His good pleasure."
****You say that those who are "called" are not necessarily those who are "drawn"; accusing me of mixing contexts and terminology. I deny. He has "saved us AND called us...[on] purpose" (2 Tim 1:9). Isn't it true that if someone is saved--- they were also initially drawn? If you agree, then someone who is saved, is not only drawn, but also called. Therefore, I am not mixing contexts because the terminologies of "saved=being drawn"... does necessarily equate to those who have been "called".
Do you retract?
****In denying the particularity of God's work in redemption, you uppercase the word, "WORLD" in Jn 3:16 to signify that ALL men
in the world are "loved" and "drawn". Doesn't your position crumble
when it's discovered that in the great majority of places in that book,
the use of this word usually denotes only some or many men in the world? (Luke 2:1, John 1:10, 3:17, 6:33, 6:51, 7:4, 7:7, 8:26, 12:19, 12:47, 14:17, 14:22, 15:18, 16:20, 17:6, 17:9, 1 Jn 5:19).
Word Count: 467