Ex Cathedra Debate
Phase 2a Questions for Windsor
1) You stated that Mary was conceived, not born, free from the stain of original sin, so is it not reasonable to assume that she would also have been born, as well, free of the stain of original sin, or did she somehow pick up the stain between conception and birth?
2) The ex cathedra statement of the Catholic Church is that Mary was conceived free of the stain of original sin, and you offered Luke 1:28 as proof, but do you realize that Luke 1:28 states differently than what you have stated in several translations, such as the King James Version, the New King James Version, the New International Version, and the Darby Translation, where Mary is not referred to as "full of Grace" but as "highly favored"? [http://www.biblegateway.com/]
3) Are you implying that Mary is somehow more highly favored than all others who enjoy God's grace, none of who happen to be sinless, per se, but only enjoy imputed righteousness? If so, in what way, and on what do you base the assumption?
4) What about Mary's enjoyment of grace implies that she is sinless?
5) If Mary were sinless, why should she be required to pay the penalty for sin, which is death?
6) Is it not true that God would not require a sinless person to pay the penalty for sin?
7) You stated that to be full of grace leaves no room for anything else, but were you aware that, according to CatholicReference.net, grace is not that of which one is full, leaving no room for sin, but is favor one enjoys from God? [http://www.catholicreference.net/index.cfm?id=33791]
8) That being the case, can you prove that the undisputed interpretation of the Catholic Church is that Mary's enjoyment of grace means that she is sinless, which does not appear to be the case, since Catholics do not universally define it as you have?
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